posted by
eftychia at 10:40pm on 2006-06-04 under randomness
If a corporation is (at least in US law) a "legal person", then why is ownership of a corporation not slavery?
Daphne Eftychia Arthur, guitarist+. Semantic Musing.
If a corporation is (at least in US law) a "legal person", then why is ownership of a corporation not slavery?
(no subject)